Finance Act 2021
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Penalty for deliberately or carelessly making incorrect returns or failing to make certain returns, etc. | ||
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75. (1) The Principal Act is amended— | ||
(a) by the insertion of the following section after section 1077E: | ||
“Penalty for deliberately or carelessly making incorrect returns or failing to make certain returns, etc. | ||
1077F. (1) In this section— | ||
‘the Acts’ means the Tax Acts, the Capital Gains Tax Acts, Parts 18A, 18B, 18C, 18D, Part 22A of this Act and the Finance (Local Property Tax) Act 2012 ; | ||
‘carelessly’ means failure to take reasonable care; | ||
‘liability to tax’ means a liability to the amount of the difference specified in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, arising from any matter referred to in subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be; | ||
‘period’ means a year of assessment, an accounting period, a return period as defined in section 530 or an income tax month as defined in section 983, as the context requires; | ||
‘prompted qualifying disclosure’, in relation to a person, means a qualifying disclosure that has been made to the Revenue Commissioners or to a Revenue officer in the period between— | ||
(a) the date on which the person is notified by a Revenue officer of the date on which an inquiry or investigation into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person will start, and | ||
(b) the date that the inquiry or investigation starts; | ||
‘qualifying disclosure’, in relation to a person, means— | ||
(a) in relation to a penalty referred to in subsection (6), a disclosure that the Revenue Commissioners are satisfied is a disclosure of— | ||
(i) complete information in relation to, and full particulars of, all matters occasioning a liability to tax that gives rise to a penalty referred to in subsection (6), and | ||
(ii) full particulars of all matters occasioning any liability to tax or duty that gives rise to— | ||
(I) a penalty referred to in section 116A(6) of the Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 , | ||
(II) a penalty referred to in section 134A(2) of the Stamp Duties Consolidation Act 1999 , and | ||
(III) the application of subsection (6) to the Capital Acquisitions Tax Consolidation Act 2003 , | ||
and | ||
(b) in relation to a penalty referred to in subsections (7) and (8), as the case may be, a disclosure that the Revenue Commissioners are satisfied is a disclosure of complete information in relation to, and full particulars of, all matters occasioning a liability to tax that gives rise to a penalty referred to in subsection (7) or (8), as the case may be, for the relevant period under whichever of the Acts the disclosure relates to, | ||
made in writing to the Revenue Commissioners or to a Revenue officer and signed by or on behalf of that person and that is accompanied by— | ||
(A) a declaration, to the best of that person's knowledge, information and belief, made in writing that all matters contained in the disclosure are correct and complete, and | ||
(B) a payment of the tax and duty payable in respect of any matter contained in the disclosure and the interest on late payment of that tax and duty; | ||
‘Revenue officer’ means an officer of the Revenue Commissioners; | ||
‘tax’ means any income tax, corporation tax, capital gains tax, domicile levy, income levy, parking levy, residential zoned land tax, universal social charge or local property tax; | ||
‘unprompted qualifying disclosure’, in relation to a person, means a qualifying disclosure that the Revenue Commissioners are satisfied has been voluntarily furnished to them— | ||
(a) before an inquiry or investigation had been started by them or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, or | ||
(b) where the person is notified by a Revenue officer of the date on which an inquiry or investigation into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person will start, before that notification. | ||
(2) Where a person— | ||
(a) delivers any incorrect return or statement of a kind mentioned in any of the provisions specified in column 1 of Schedule 29 where that return or statement contains— | ||
(i) a deliberate understatement of— | ||
(I) income, profits or gains, or | ||
(II) income tax in respect of emoluments to which Chapter 4 of Part 42 relates, | ||
or | ||
(ii) a deliberately false or overstated claim in connection with any allowance, deduction, relief or credit, | ||
(b) makes any incorrect return, statement or declaration in connection with any claim for any allowance, deduction, relief or credit and does so deliberately, | ||
(c) submits to the Revenue Commissioners, the Appeal Commissioners or a Revenue officer any incorrect accounts which contain a deliberate understatement of income, profits or gains or a deliberate overstatement of any claim in connection with any allowance, deduction, relief or credit, or | ||
(d) carelessly but not deliberately— | ||
(i) delivers any incorrect return or statement of a kind mentioned in any of the provisions specified in column 1 of Schedule 29, | ||
(ii) makes any incorrect return, statement or declaration in connection with any claim for any allowance, deduction, relief or credit, or | ||
(iii) submits to the Revenue Commissioners, the Appeal Commissioners or a Revenue officer any incorrect accounts which contain an understatement of income, profits or gains or an overstatement of any claims in connection with any allowance, deduction, relief or credit, | ||
then— | ||
(A) in the case of paragraphs (a) to (c), that action shall be a deliberate default for the purposes of this section, and | ||
(B) in the case of paragraph (d), that action shall be a careless default for the purposes of this section, | ||
and the person shall be liable to a penalty. | ||
(3) The penalty referred to in subsection (2) shall be the difference between— | ||
(a) the amount of tax that would have been payable for the relevant periods or could have been claimed by the person concerned (including any amount deducted at source and not repayable) if that tax had been computed in accordance with the incorrect or false return, statement, declaration, claim or accounts as actually made or submitted by or on behalf of that person for those periods, and | ||
(b) the amount of tax that would have been payable for the relevant periods by, or refundable to, the person concerned (including any amount deducted at source and not repayable) if that tax had been computed in accordance with the true and correct return, statement, declaration, claim or accounts that should have been made or submitted by or on behalf of that person for those periods, | ||
and for the purposes of this subsection and subsection (5) references in those subsections to tax payable shall be construed without regard to the definition of ‘income tax payable’ in section 3. | ||
(4) Where a person— | ||
(a) deliberately fails to comply, or | ||
(b) carelessly (but not deliberately) fails to comply, | ||
with a requirement to deliver a return or statement of a kind mentioned in any of the provisions specified in column 1 of Schedule 29, then, that failure to comply with a requirement shall— | ||
(i) in the case of paragraph (a), be a deliberate default for the purposes of this section, and | ||
(ii) in the case of paragraph (b), be a careless default for the purposes of this section, | ||
and the person shall be liable to a penalty. | ||
(5) In relation to any matter that would have been included in a return or statement referred to in subsection (4) if the return or statement had been delivered by a person and had been correct, the penalty referred to in subsection (4) shall be the difference between— | ||
(a) the amount of tax (if any) paid by the person for the relevant periods (including any amount deducted at source and not repayable) before— | ||
(i) unless subparagraph (ii) applies, the date of the notice in writing from the Revenue Commissioners to the person concerned of an inquiry or investigation by the Revenue Commissioners or a Revenue officer into the matter, or | ||
(ii) where the Revenue Commissioners had announced publicly that they had started an inquiry or investigation into the matter, the date of that public announcement, | ||
and | ||
(b) the amount of tax which would have been payable for the relevant periods (including any amount deducted at source and not repayable) if the return or statement had been delivered by that person and the return or statement had been correct. | ||
(6) (a) (i) Subject to subparagraphs (ii), (iii) and (iv), where a person is liable to a penalty under subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, for a deliberate default, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall not be reduced. | ||
(ii) Where subparagraph (i) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 75 per cent of the difference referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be (referred to in this subsection and subsections (7) and (8) as ‘the difference’). | ||
(iii) Where subparagraph (ii) applies and the person made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 50 per cent of the difference. | ||
(iv) Where subparagraph (ii) applies and the person made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 10 per cent of the difference. | ||
(b) (i) Subject to subparagraph (ii), where a second qualifying disclosure is made by a person within 5 years of such person’s first qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, for a deliberate default shall not be reduced. | ||
(ii) Where subparagraph (i) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, then— | ||
(I) where that person made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 75 per cent of the difference, and | ||
(II) where that person made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 55 per cent of the difference. | ||
(c) Where a third or subsequent qualifying disclosure is made by a person within 5 years of such person’s second qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, for a deliberate default under subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, shall not be reduced. | ||
(7) (a) In this subsection and subsection (8), ‘significant consequences’ means, where subsection (2) applies, the amount of the difference referred to in subsection (3) exceeds 15 per cent of the amount referred to in paragraph (b) of subsection (3) and, where subsection (4) applies, the amount of the difference referred to in subsection (5) exceeds 15 per cent of the amount referred to in paragraph (b) of subsection (5). | ||
(b) (i) Subject to subparagraphs (ii), (iii) and (iv), where a person is liable to a penalty under subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, for a careless default which has significant consequences, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 40 per cent of the difference. | ||
(ii) Where subparagraph (i) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 30 per cent of the difference. | ||
(iii) Where subparagraph (ii) applies and the person also made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 20 per cent of the difference. | ||
(iv) Where subparagraph (ii) applies and the person also made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 5 per cent of the difference. | ||
(c) (i) Subject to subparagraph (ii), where a second qualifying disclosure is made by a person within 5 years of such person’s first qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, for a careless default with significant consequences shall be reduced to 40 per cent of the difference. | ||
(ii) Where subparagraph (i) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, then— | ||
(I) where that person made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 30 per cent of the difference, and | ||
(II) where that person made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 20 per cent of the difference. | ||
(d) Where a third or subsequent qualifying disclosure is made by a person within 5 years of such person’s second qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, for a careless default with significant consequences shall be reduced to 40 per cent of the difference. | ||
(8) (a) Subject to paragraphs (b), (c) and (d), where a person is liable to a penalty under subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, for a careless default which does not have significant consequences, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 20 per cent of the difference. | ||
(b) Where paragraph (a) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 15 per cent of the difference. | ||
(c) Where paragraph (b) applies and the person also made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 10 per cent of the difference. | ||
(d) Where paragraph (b) applies and the person also made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 3 per cent of the difference. | ||
(9) Where— | ||
(a) the aggregate amount of— | ||
(i) the liability to tax (within the meaning of subsection (1)), | ||
(ii) the liability to tax (within the meaning of section 116A(1) of the Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 ), | ||
(iii) the liability to duty (within the meaning of section 134A(15) of the Stamp Duties Consolidation Act 1999 ), and | ||
(iv) the differences specified in subsections (5) and (5A), as appropriate, of section 58 of the Capital Acquisitions Tax Consolidation Act 2003 , | ||
does not exceed €6,000, and | ||
(b) but for this subsection the penalty would be reduced in accordance with subsection (7) or (8) of this section, subsection (7) or (8) of section 116A of the Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 or subsection (5)(b) or (5A)(b) of section 134A of the Stamp Duties Consolidation Act 1999 , as the case may be, | ||
then, notwithstanding subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, that person shall not be liable to a penalty. | ||
(10) Where any person is liable to a penalty under subsection (2) so much of the difference specified in subsection (3) as is attributable to a technical adjustment or an innocent error shall not be liable to a penalty. | ||
(11) Where a person deliberately or carelessly furnishes, gives, produces or makes any incorrect return, information, certificate, document, record, statement, particulars, account or declaration of a kind mentioned in any of the provisions specified in column 2 or 3 of Schedule 29, the person shall be liable to— | ||
(a) a penalty of €3,000 where that person has acted carelessly, or | ||
(b) a penalty of €5,000 where that person has acted deliberately. | ||
(12) Where any return, statement, declaration or accounts referred to in subsection (2) was or were made or submitted by a person, neither deliberately nor carelessly, and it comes to that person’s notice that it was or they were incorrect, then, unless the error is remedied without unreasonable delay, the incorrect return, statement, declaration or accounts shall be treated for the purposes of this section as having been deliberately made or submitted by that person. | ||
(13) Subject to section 1077D(2), proceedings or applications for the recovery of any penalty under this section shall not be out of time because they are commenced after the time allowed by section 1063. | ||
(14) A disclosure in relation to a person shall not be a qualifying disclosure where— | ||
(a) before the disclosure is made, a Revenue officer had started an inquiry or investigation into any matter contained in that disclosure and had contacted or notified that person, or a person representing that person, in this regard, or | ||
(b) matters contained in the disclosure are matters— | ||
(i) that have become known, or are about to become known, to the Revenue Commissioners through their own investigations or through an investigation conducted by a statutory body or agency, | ||
(ii) that are within the scope of an inquiry being carried out wholly or partly in public, or | ||
(iii) to which the person who made the disclosure is linked, or about to be linked, publicly. | ||
(15) (a) The relevant period for the purposes of subsections (3) and (5) shall be, in relation to anything delivered, made or submitted in any period, that period, the next period and any preceding period. | ||
(b) For the purposes of this subsection, the references in subsections (3) and (5) to the amount of tax payable shall not, in relation to anything done in connection with a partnership, include any tax not chargeable in the partnership name. | ||
(16) For the purposes of this section, any returns or accounts submitted on behalf of a person shall be deemed to have been submitted by the person unless that person proves that they were submitted without that person's consent or knowledge.”, | ||
and | ||
(b) in section 959V, by the insertion of the following subsection after subsection (7): | ||
“(8) This section is without prejudice to the operation of section 1077E or 1077F, as appropriate.”. | ||
(2) The Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 is amended by the insertion of the following section after section 116: | ||
“Penalty for deliberately or carelessly making incorrect returns, etc. | ||
116A. (1) In this section— | ||
‘carelessly’ means failure to take reasonable care; | ||
‘liability to tax’ means a liability to the amount of the difference specified in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, arising from any matter referred to in subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be; | ||
‘period’ means taxable period, accounting period or other period, as the context requires; | ||
‘prompted qualifying disclosure’, in relation to a person, means a qualifying disclosure that has been made to the Revenue Commissioners or to a Revenue officer in the period between— | ||
(a) the date on which a person is notified by a Revenue officer of the date on which an inquiry or investigation into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person will start, and | ||
(b) the date that the inquiry or investigation starts; | ||
‘qualifying disclosure’, in relation to a person, means— | ||
(a) in relation to a penalty referred to in subsection (6), a disclosure that the Revenue Commissioners are satisfied is a disclosure of— | ||
(i) complete information in relation to, and full particulars of, all matters occasioning a liability to tax that gives rise to a penalty referred to in subsection (6), and | ||
(ii) full particulars of all matters occasioning any liability to tax or duty that gives rise to— | ||
(I) a penalty referred to in section 1077F(6) of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 , | ||
(II) a penalty referred to in section 134A(2) of the Stamp Duties Consolidation Act 1999 , and | ||
(III) the application of section 1077F(6) of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 to the Capital Acquisitions Tax Consolidation Act 2003 , | ||
and | ||
(b) in relation to a penalty referred to in subsection (7) or (8), as the case may be, a disclosure that the Revenue Commissioners are satisfied is a disclosure of complete information in relation to, and full particulars of, all matters occasioning a liability to tax that gives rise to a penalty referred to in subsection (7) or (8), as the case may be, for the relevant period, | ||
made in writing to the Revenue Commissioners or to a Revenue officer and signed by or on behalf of that person and is accompanied by— | ||
(A) a declaration, to the best of that person’s knowledge, information and belief, made in writing that all matters contained in the disclosure are correct and complete, and | ||
(B) a payment of the tax and duty payable in respect of any matter contained in the disclosure and the interest on late payment of that tax and duty; | ||
‘Revenue officer’ means an officer of the Revenue Commissioners; | ||
‘unprompted qualifying disclosure’, in relation to a person, means a qualifying disclosure that the Revenue Commissioners are satisfied has been voluntarily furnished to them— | ||
(a) before an inquiry or investigation had been started by them or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, or | ||
(b) where the person is notified by a Revenue officer of the date on which an inquiry or investigation into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person will start, before that notification. | ||
(2) Where a person— | ||
(a) furnishes a return or makes a claim or declaration for the purposes of this Act or of regulations and, in so doing, the person deliberately— | ||
(i) furnishes an incorrect return, or | ||
(ii) makes an incorrect claim or declaration, | ||
or | ||
(b) furnishes a return or makes a claim or declaration for the purposes of this Act or of regulations and, in so doing, the person carelessly but not deliberately— | ||
(i) furnishes an incorrect return, or | ||
(ii) makes an incorrect claim or declaration, | ||
then— | ||
(I) in the case of paragraph (a), that action shall be a deliberate default for the purposes of this section, and | ||
(II) in the case of paragraph (b), that action shall be a careless default for the purposes of this section, | ||
and the person shall be liable to a penalty. | ||
(3) The penalty referred to in subsection (2) shall be the difference between— | ||
(a) the amount of tax (if any) paid or claimed by the person concerned for the relevant period on the basis of the incorrect return, claim or declaration as furnished or otherwise made, and | ||
(b) the amount properly payable by, or refundable to, that person for that period. | ||
(4) Where a person— | ||
(a) deliberately fails to comply, or | ||
(b) carelessly (but not deliberately) fails to comply, | ||
with a requirement in accordance with this Act or regulations to furnish a return, that failure to comply with a requirement shall— | ||
(i) in the case of paragraph (a), be a deliberate default for the purposes of this section, and | ||
(ii) in the case of paragraph (b), be a careless default for the purposes of this section, | ||
and the person shall be liable to a penalty. | ||
(5) In relation to any matter that would have been included in a return referred to in subsection (4) if it had been delivered by a person and had been correct, the penalty referred to in subsection (4) shall be the difference between— | ||
(a) the amount of tax (if any) paid by the person for the relevant period before— | ||
(i) unless subparagraph (ii) applies, the date of the notice in writing from the Revenue Commissioners to the person concerned of an inquiry or investigation by the Revenue Commissioners or a Revenue officer into the matter, or | ||
(ii) where the Revenue Commissioners had announced publicly that they had started an inquiry or investigation into the matter, the date of that public announcement, | ||
and | ||
(b) the amount of tax properly payable by the person for that period. | ||
(6) (a) (i) Subject to subparagraphs (ii), (iii) and (iv), where a person is liable to a penalty under subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, for a deliberate default, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall not be reduced. | ||
(ii) Where subparagraph (i) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 75 per cent of the difference referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be (referred to in this subsection and subsections (7) and (8) as ‘the difference’). | ||
(iii) Where subparagraph (ii) applies and the person made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 50 per cent of the difference. | ||
(iv) Where subparagraph (ii) applies and the person made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 10 per cent of the difference. | ||
(b) (i) Subject to subparagraph (ii), where a second qualifying disclosure is made by a person within 5 years of such person’s first qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, for a deliberate default shall not be reduced. | ||
(ii) Where subparagraph (i) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, then— | ||
(I) where that person made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 75 per cent of the difference, and | ||
(II) where the person made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 55 per cent of the difference. | ||
(c) Where a third or subsequent qualifying disclosure is made by a person within 5 years of such person’s second qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, for a deliberate default under subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, shall not be reduced. | ||
(7) (a) In this subsection and in subsection (8), ‘significant consequences’ means, where subsection (2) applies, the amount of the difference referred to in subsection (3) exceeds 15 per cent of the amount referred to in paragraph (b) of subsection (3) and, where subsection (4) applies, the amount of the difference referred to in subsection (5) exceeds 15 per cent of the amount referred to in paragraph (b) of subsection (5). | ||
(b) (i) Subject to subparagraphs (ii), (iii) and (iv), where a person is liable to a penalty under subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, for a careless default which has significant consequences, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 40 per cent of the difference. | ||
(ii) Where subparagraph (i) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 30 per cent of the difference. | ||
(iii) Where subparagraph (ii) applies and the person also made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 20 per cent of the difference. | ||
(iv) Where subparagraph (ii) applies and the person also made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 5 per cent of the difference. | ||
(c) (i) Subject to subparagraph (ii), where a second qualifying disclosure is made by a person within 5 years of such person’s first qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, for a careless default with significant consequences shall be reduced to 40 per cent of the difference. | ||
(ii) Where subparagraph (i) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, then— | ||
(I) where the person made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 30 per cent of the difference, and | ||
(II) where the person made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 20 per cent of the difference. | ||
(d) Where a third or subsequent qualifying disclosure is made by a person within 5 years of such person’s second qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, for a careless default with significant consequences shall be reduced to 40 per cent of the difference. | ||
(8) (a) Subject to paragraphs (b), (c) and (d), where a person is liable to a penalty under subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, for a careless default which does not have significant consequences, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 20 per cent of the difference. | ||
(b) Where paragraph (a) applies and the person cooperated fully with any inquiry or investigation started by the Revenue Commissioners or by a Revenue officer into any matter occasioning a liability to tax of that person, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 15 per cent of the difference. | ||
(c) Where paragraph (b) applies and the person also made a prompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 10 per cent of the difference. | ||
(d) Where paragraph (b) applies and the person also made an unprompted qualifying disclosure, the penalty referred to in subsection (3) or (5), as the case may be, shall be reduced to 3 per cent of the difference. | ||
(9) Where— | ||
(a) the aggregate amount of— | ||
(i) the liability to tax (within the meaning of subsection (1)), | ||
(ii) the liability to tax (within the meaning of section 1077F(1) of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 ), | ||
(iii) the liability to duty within the meaning of section 134A(15) of the Stamp Duties Consolidation Act 1999 , and | ||
(iv) the differences specified in subsections (5) and (5A), as appropriate, of section 58 of the Capital Acquisitions Tax Consolidation Act 2003 , | ||
does not exceed €6,000, and | ||
(b) but for this subsection the penalty would be reduced in accordance with subsection (7) or (8) of this section, subsection (7) or (8) of section 1077F of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 or subsection (5)(b) or (5A)(b) of section 134A of the Stamp Duties Consolidation Act 1999 , as the case may be, | ||
then, notwithstanding subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, that person shall not be liable to a penalty. | ||
(10) Where any person is liable to a penalty under subsection (2) so much of the difference specified in subsection (3) as is attributable to a technical adjustment or an innocent error shall not be liable to a penalty. | ||
(11) Where, for the purposes of this Act or of regulations, a person deliberately or carelessly produces, furnishes, gives, sends or otherwise makes use of, any incorrect invoice, registration number, credit note, debit note, receipt, account, voucher, bank statement, estimate, statement, information, book, document or record, the person shall be liable to— | ||
(a) a penalty of €3,000 where that person has acted carelessly, or | ||
(b) a penalty of €5,000 where that person has acted deliberately. | ||
(12) Where any return, claim or declaration referred to in subsection (2) was furnished or made by a person, neither deliberately nor carelessly, and it comes to the person’s notice that it was incorrect, then, unless the error is remedied without unreasonable delay, the return, claim or declaration shall be treated for the purposes of this section as having been deliberately made or submitted by that person. | ||
(13) Subject to section 1077D(2) of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 , proceedings or applications for the recovery of any penalty under this section shall not be out of time because they are commenced after the time allowed by section 113. | ||
(14) This section shall not apply to a person, being the second accountable person (within the meaning of section 108C), where— | ||
(a) that person is jointly and severally liable by virtue of section 108C, and | ||
(b) the penalty which would otherwise arise under this section only relates to the tax for which that person is jointly and severally liable by virtue of section 108C. | ||
(15) This section shall not apply to a person, being a tax representative appointed in accordance with section 109A, where— | ||
(a) that person is jointly and severally liable by virtue of section 109A, and | ||
(b) the penalty which would otherwise arise under this section only relates to tax for which that person is jointly and severally liable by virtue of that section. | ||
(16) This section shall not apply to a person, being an intermediary (within the meaning of section 91I), where— | ||
(a) that person is jointly and severally liable by virtue of section 91J(10), and | ||
(b) the penalty which would otherwise arise under this section only relates to tax for which that person is jointly and severally liable by virtue of section 91J(10). | ||
(17) A disclosure in relation to a person shall not be a qualifying disclosure where— | ||
(a) before the disclosure is made, a Revenue officer had started an inquiry or investigation into any matter contained in that disclosure and had contacted or notified that person, or a person representing that person, in this regard, or | ||
(b) matters contained in the disclosure are matters— | ||
(i) that have become known, or are about to become known, to the Revenue Commissioners through their own investigations or through an investigation conducted by a statutory body or agency, | ||
(ii) that are within the scope of an inquiry being carried out wholly or partly in public, or | ||
(iii) to which the person who made the disclosure is linked, or about to be linked, publicly. | ||
(18) For the purposes of this section, any return, claim or declaration submitted on behalf of a person shall be deemed to have been submitted by that person unless that person proves that it was submitted without that person’s consent or knowledge. | ||
(19) Where a person referred to in subsection (2) or (4), as the case may be, is a body of persons, the secretary shall be liable to a separate penalty of €1,500 or, in the case of deliberate behaviour, €3,000. | ||
(20) Where a person, in a case in which the person represents that he or she is a registered person or that goods imported by him or her were so imported for the purposes of a business carried on by him or her, improperly procures the importation of goods without payment of tax in circumstances in which tax is chargeable, then he or she shall be liable to a penalty of €4,000 and, in addition, he or she shall be liable to pay to the Revenue Commissioners the amount of any tax that should have been paid on the importation. | ||
(21) Where a person acquires goods without payment of value-added tax (as referred to in the VAT Directive) in another Member State as a result of the declaration of an incorrect registration number, the person shall be liable to a penalty of €4,000 and, in addition, he or she shall be liable to pay to the Revenue Commissioners an amount equal to the amount of tax which would have been chargeable on an intra-Community acquisition of those goods if that declaration had been the declaration of a correct registration number. | ||
(22) (a) Where, in pursuance of regulations made for the purposes of section 57(1), tax on the supply of any goods has been remitted or repaid and— | ||
(i) either— | ||
(I) those goods are found in the State after the date on which they were alleged to have been or were to be exported, or | ||
(II) any condition specified in the regulations or imposed by the Revenue Commissioners is not complied with, | ||
and | ||
(ii) the presence of the goods in the State after that date or the non-compliance with the condition has not been authorised for the purposes of this subsection by the Revenue Commissioners, | ||
then— | ||
(A) the goods shall be liable to forfeiture, and | ||
(B) subject to paragraph (b), the tax which was remitted or repaid shall be charged upon and become payable forthwith by the person to whom the goods were supplied or any person in whose possession the goods are found in the State and sections 960I(1), 960J, 960L and 960N of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 shall apply accordingly. | ||
(b) The Revenue Commissioners may, if they think fit, waive payment of the whole or part of the tax referred to in subclause (B) of paragraph (a). | ||
(23) (a) For the purposes of this section ‘the declaration of an incorrect registration number’ means— | ||
(i) the declaration by a person of another person’s registration number, | ||
(ii) the declaration by a person of a number which is not an actual registration number which the person purports to be his or her registration number, | ||
(iii) the declaration by a person of a registration number which is cancelled, | ||
(iv) the declaration by a person of a registration number which was obtained from the Revenue Commissioners by supplying incorrect information, or | ||
(v) the declaration by a person of a registration number which was obtained from the Revenue Commissioners for the purposes of acquiring goods without payment of value-added tax (as referred to in the VAT Directive), and not for any bona fide business purpose. | ||
(b) Where goods— | ||
(i) were supplied at the rate of zero per cent subject to the condition that they were to be dispatched or transported outside the State in accordance with paragraph 1(1) or (2), 3(1) or 7(3) of Schedule 2 and the goods were not so dispatched or transported, | ||
(ii) were acquired without payment of value-added tax (as referred to in the VAT Directive) in another Member State as a result of the declaration of an incorrect registration number, | ||
(iii) were acquired in another Member State and those goods are new means of transport in respect of which the acquirer— | ||
(I) makes an intra-Community acquisition in the State, | ||
(II) is not entitled to a deduction under Chapter 1 of Part 8 in respect of the tax chargeable on that acquisition, and | ||
(III) fails to account for the tax due on that acquisition in accordance with Chapter 3 of Part 9, | ||
or | ||
(iv) are being supplied by an accountable person who has not complied with section 65(3), | ||
then those goods shall be liable to forfeiture. | ||
(c) Where an officer authorised by the Revenue Commissioners reasonably suspects that goods are liable to forfeiture in accordance with paragraph (b), then those goods may be detained by that officer until such examination, inquiries or investigations as may be deemed necessary by that officer, or by another authorised officer of the Revenue Commissioners, have been made for the purpose of determining to the satisfaction of either officer whether or not those goods were so supplied or acquired. | ||
(d) Where a determination referred to in paragraph (c) has been made in respect of any goods, or upon the expiry of a period of 2 months from the date on which the goods were detained under that paragraph, whichever is the earlier, those goods shall be seized as liable to forfeiture or released. | ||
(24) The provisions of the Customs Acts relating to forfeiture and condemnation of goods shall apply to goods liable to forfeiture under subsection (22) or (23) as if they had become liable to forfeiture under those Acts and all powers which may be exercised by an officer of customs under those Acts may be exercised by officers of the Revenue Commissioners authorised to exercise those powers for the purposes of those subsections and any provisions in relation to offences under those Acts shall apply, with any necessary modifications, in relation to those subsections. | ||
(25) Where an officer authorised by the Revenue Commissioners for the purposes of this subsection or a member of An Garda Síochána has reasonable grounds for suspecting that a criminal offence has been committed under section 1078 of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 in relation to tax, by a person who is not established in the State, or whom that officer believes is likely to leave the State, that officer may arrest the person.”. | ||
(3) Section 134A of the Stamp Duties Consolidation Act 1999 is amended— | ||
(a) in subsection (1), in the definition of “qualifying disclosure”, by the substitution of the following for paragraph (a): | ||
“(a) in relation to a penalty referred to in subsection (3), a disclosure that the Commissioners are satisfied is a disclosure of complete information in relation to, and full particulars of, all matters occasioning a liability to duty that gives rise to a penalty referred to in subsection (3), and full particulars of all matters occasioning any liability to tax that gives rise to a penalty referred to in sections 1077E(4) and 1077F(6) of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 (including those provisions as applied to the Capital Acquisitions Tax Consolidation Act 2003 by section 58(9)(b) of that Act) and sections 116 (4) and 116A(6) of the Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 , and”, | ||
(b) by the deletion of subsection (13), and | ||
(c) by the insertion of the following subsection after subsection (14): | ||
“(15) (a) For the purposes of this subsection, the liability to duty shall include the amount calculated in accordance with subsection (9A). | ||
(b) Where— | ||
(i) the aggregate amount of— | ||
(I) the liability to duty, | ||
(II) the liability to tax (within the meaning of section 1077F(1) of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 ), | ||
(III) the liability to tax (within the meaning of section 116A(1) of the Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 ), and | ||
(IV) the differences specified in subsections (5) and (5A), as appropriate, of section 58 of the Capital Acquisitions Tax Consolidation Act 2003 , | ||
does not exceed €6,000, and | ||
(ii) but for this subsection, the penalty would be reduced in accordance with subsection (5)(b) or (5A)(b) of this section, subsection (7) or (8) of section 1077F of the Taxes Consolidation Act 1997 or subsection (7) or (8) of section 116A of the Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 , as the case may be, | ||
then, notwithstanding subsection (4), the person shall not be liable to a penalty under this section.”. | ||
(4) Section 58 of the Capital Acquisitions Tax Consolidation Act 2003 is amended— | ||
(a) by the substitution of the following subsection for subsection (5A): | ||
“(5A) In relation to any matter that would have been included in a return or additional return if the return or additional return had been delivered by a person and had been correct, the difference referred to in paragraph (b) of subsection (1A) is the difference between— | ||
(a) the amount of tax paid by that person in respect of the taxable gift or inheritance to which the return or additional return relates before— | ||
(i) unless subparagraph (ii) applies, the date of the notice in writing from the Revenue Commissioners to the person concerned of an inquiry or investigation by the Revenue Commissioners or a Revenue officer into the matter, or | ||
(ii) where the Revenue Commissioners had announced publicly that they had started an inquiry or investigation into the matter, the date of that public announcement, | ||
and | ||
(b) the amount of tax that would have been payable if the return or additional return had been delivered by that person and that return or additional return had been correct.”, | ||
and | ||
(b) in subsection (9)(b), by the substitution of “section 1077E or 1077F, as appropriate” for “section 1077E (inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act 2008 )”. | ||
(5) (a) The Principal Act is amended in the manner and to the extent specified in Part 1 of the Schedule . | ||
(b) The Value-Added Tax Consolidation Act 2010 is amended in the manner and to the extent specified in Part 2 of the Schedule . | ||
(c) The Finance Act 2001 is amended in the manner and to the extent specified in Part 3 of the Schedule . |